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Since it is Given that 1=8 then 8=1

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8=1 as1=8

All those answered this question have given the SAME answer as ‘1’ based on the first statement “1 = 8”. However, they have, apparently by oversight, overlooked the fact that the axiom of “mutual equality” is applicable IF and ONLY IF the “=” sign means “equals”. The principle CAN’T be applied anywhere where the “=” sign has any meaning other than that of ‘equality’. In the question, it is evident that the “=” sign does NOT denote the concept of equality, but something else.

Since the “=” does not stand for ‘equality’, it can have any number of other meanings. One such ‘straight-forward’ meaning could be “multiplication by 8” (which is quite evident), in which case the answer should be 64.

(Another, slightly complicated meaning of “=” could be “square the number and add a (sequential) number from the “pulsating” series ‘7, 12, 15, 16, 15, 12, 7….’
1 * 1 + 7 = 8;
2 * 2 + 12 = 16;
3 * 3 + 15 = 24,
4 * 4 + 16 = 32;
5 * 5 + 15 = 40;
6 * 6 + 12 = 48;
7 * 7 + 7 = 56

By this logic. the answer would be 8 * 8 + 12 = 76.
)

There can be ‘n’ number of more complicated assumptions and derivations.

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It is given that (1 = 8).
It also says Have Fun : )
∴ 8 = 1
[SherlockHolmes wanted to trick you]
The given pattern gives us the multiplication table of number ‘8’
8 =  ?
 8 = 8 x 8 = 64
But 1 is the expected answer for this riddle.
I guess . . .