# Numerals assignment in funny way riddle

If
1 = 8
2 = 16
3 = 24
4 = 32
5 = 40
6 = 48
7 = 56

Then 8 = ?

Have Fun 🙂

Since it is Given that 1=8 then 8=1

All those answered this question have given the SAME answer as ‘1’ based on the first statement “1 = 8”. However, they have, apparently by oversight, overlooked the fact that the axiom of “mutual equality” is applicable IF and ONLY IF the “=” sign means “equals”. The principle CAN’T be applied anywhere where the “=” sign has any meaning other than that of ‘equality’. In the question, it is evident that the “=” sign does NOT denote the concept of equality, but something else.

Since the “=” does not stand for ‘equality’, it can have any number of other meanings. One such ‘straight-forward’ meaning could be “multiplication by 8” (which is quite evident), in which case the answer should be 64.

(Another, slightly complicated meaning of “=” could be “square the number and add a (sequential) number from the “pulsating” series ‘7, 12, 15, 16, 15, 12, 7….’
1 * 1 + 7 = 8;
2 * 2 + 12 = 16;
3 * 3 + 15 = 24,
4 * 4 + 16 = 32;
5 * 5 + 15 = 40;
6 * 6 + 12 = 48;
7 * 7 + 7 = 56

By this logic. the answer would be 8 * 8 + 12 = 76.
)

There can be ‘n’ number of more complicated assumptions and derivations. A small hint – Have fun 🙂

suggests to think it a little funnier way 😛

on 23rd June 2016. There’s no ‘fun’ in ‘assuming the obvious’… Fun lies in thinking in unusual ways…! :p

on 24th June 2016.