Numerals assignment in funny way riddle

If
1 = 8
2 = 16
3 = 24
4 = 32
5 = 40
6 = 48
7 = 56

Then 8 = ?

Have Fun ­čÖé

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SherlockHolmes Expert Asked on 21st June 2016 in Easy puzzles.
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  • 6 Answer(s)
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    1

    Yodha Expert Answered on 21st June 2016.
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    Since it is Given that 1=8 then 8=1

    dyj Expert Answered on 21st June 2016.
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    1

    sai srinivas Curious Answered on 21st June 2016.
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    8=1 as1=8

    mohitsingh Genius Answered on 21st June 2016.
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    All those answered this question have given the SAME answer as ‘1’ based on the first statement “1 =┬á8”. However, they have, apparently by oversight, overlooked the fact that the axiom of “mutual equality” is applicable IF and ONLY IF the “=” sign means “equals”. The principle CAN’T be applied anywhere where the “=” sign has any┬ámeaning other than that of ‘equality’. In the question, it is evident that the “=” sign does NOT denote the concept of equality, but something else.

    Since the “=” does not stand for ‘equality’, it can have any number of other meanings. One such ‘straight-forward’ meaning could be “multiplication by 8” (which is quite evident), in which case the answer should be 64.

    (Another, slightly complicated meaning of “=” could be “square the number and add a┬á(sequential)┬ánumber from the “pulsating” series ‘7, 12, 15, 16, 15, 12, 7….’
    1 * 1 + 7 = 8;
    2 * 2 + 12 = 16;
    3 * 3 + 15 = 24,
    4 * 4 + 16 = 32;
    5 * 5 + 15 = 40;
    6 * 6 + 12 = 48;
    7 * 7 + 7 = 56

    By this logic. the answer would be 8 * 8 + 12 = 76.
    )

    There can be ‘n’┬ánumber of more complicated assumptions and derivations.

    Viji_Pinarayi Expert Answered on 22nd June 2016.

    A small hint – Have fun ­čÖé

    suggests to think it a little funnier way ­čśŤ

    on 23rd June 2016.

    There’s no ‘fun’ in ‘assuming the obvious’… Fun lies in thinking in┬áunusual ways…! :p

    on 24th June 2016.
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    1

    mahender prasad Default Answered on 24th June 2016.
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